Software Engineering

Q.1 The most important feature of spiral model is

(A) requirement analysis. (B) risk management.

(C) quality management. (D) configuration management.

Ans: B

Q.2 The worst type of coupling is

(A) Data coupling. (B) control coupling.

(C) stamp coupling. (D) content coupling.

Ans: D

Q.3 IEEE 830-1993 is a IEEE recommended standard for

(A) Software requirement specification.

(B) Software design.

(C) Testing.

(D) Both (A) and (B)

Ans: A

Q.4 One of the fault base testing techniques is

(A) unit testing. (B) beta testing.

(C) Stress testing. (D) mutation testing.

Ans: D

Q.5 Changes made to an information system to add the desired but not necessarily the

required features is called

(A) Preventative maintenance.

(B) Adaptive maintenance.

(C) Corrective maintenance.

(D) Perfective maintenance.

Ans: D

Q.6 All the modules of the system are integrated and tested as complete system in the

case of

(A) Bottom up testing (B) Top-down testing

(C) Sandwich testing (D) Big-Bang testing

Ans: D

Q.7 If every requirement stated in the Software Requirement Specification (SRS) has

only one interpretation, SRS is said to be

(A) correct. (B) unambiguous.

(C) consistent. (D) verifiable.

Ans: B

Q.8 A fault simulation testing technique is

(A) Mutation testing (B) Stress testing

(C) Black box testing (D) White box testing

Ans: A

Q.9 Modules X and Y operate on the same input and output data, then the cohesion is

(A) Sequential (B) Communicational

(C) Procedural (D) Logical

Ans: B

Q.10 If the objects focus on the problem domain, then we are concerned with

(A) Object Oriented Analysis.

(B) Object Oriented Design

(C) Object Oriented Analysis & Design

(D) None of the above

Ans: A

Q.11 SRS is also known as specification of

(A) White box testing (B) Stress testing

(C) Integrated testing (D) Black box testing

Ans: D

Q.12 The model in which the requirements are implemented by category is

(A) Evolutionary Development Model

(B) Waterfall Model

(C) Prototyping

(D) Iterative Enhancement Model

Ans: A

Q.13 SRD stands for

(A) Software requirements definition

(B) Structured requirements definition

(C) Software requirements diagram

(D) Structured requirements diagram

Ans: B

Q.14 A COCOMO model is

(A) Common Cost Estimation Model.

(B) Constructive Cost Estimation Model.

(C) Complete Cost Estimation Model.

(D) Comprehensive Cost Estimation Model.

Ans: B

Q.15 Which of the following statements is true

(A) Abstract data types are the same as classes

(B) Abstract data types do not allow inheritance

(C) Classes cannot inherit from the same base class

(D) Object have state and behavior

Ans: B

Q.16 The desired level of coupling is

(A) No coupling (B) Control coupling

(C) Common coupling (D) Data coupling

Ans: D

Q.17 In the spiral model ‘risk analysis’ is performed

(A) In the first loop (B) in the first and second loop

(C) In every loop (D) before using spiral model

Ans: C

Q.18 For a well understood data processing application it is best to use

(A) The waterfall model (B) prototyping model

(C) the evolutionary model (D) the spiral model

Ans: A

Q.19 Coupling and cohesion can be represented using a

(A) cause-effect graph (B) dependence matrix

(C) Structure chart (D) SRS

Ans: B

Q.20 The symbol represents

(A) mandatory 1 cardinality (B) mandatory many cardinality

(C) optional 0 or 1 cardinality (D) optional zero-many cardinality

Ans: D

Q.21 Each time a defect gets detected and fixed, the reliability of a software product

(A) increases. (B) decreases.

(C) remains constant. (D) cannot say anything.

Ans: A

Q.22 Output comparators are used in

(A) static testing of single module

(B) dynamic testing of single module

(C) static testing of single and multiple module

(D) dynamic testing of single and multiple module

Ans: D

Q.23 The feature of the object oriented paradigm which helps code reuse is

(A) object. (B) class.

(C) inheritance. (D) aggregation.

Ans: C

Q.24 The level at which the software uses scarce resources is

(A) reliability (B) efficiency

(C) portability (D) all of the above

Ans: B

Q.25 If every requirement can be checked by a cost-effective process, then the SRS is

(A) verifiable (B) traceable

(C) modifiable (D) complete

Ans: A

Database Management Systems

Q.1 Which of the following relational algebra operations do not require the participating

tables to be union-compatible?

(A) Union (B) Intersection

(C) Difference (D) Join

Ans: (D)

Q.2 Which of the following is not a property of transactions?

(A) Atomicity (B) Concurrency

(C) Isolation (D) Durability

Ans: (B)

Q.3 Relational Algebra does not have

(A) Selection operator. (B) Projection operator.

(C) Aggregation operators. (D) Division operator.

Ans: (C )

Q.4 Checkpoints are a part of

(A) Recovery measures. (B) Security measures.

(C ) Concurrency measures. (D) Authorization measures.

Ans: (A)

Q.5 Tree structures are used to store data in

(A) Network model. (B) Relational model.

(C) Hierarchical model. (D) File based system.

Ans: (C )

Q.6 The language that requires a user to specify the data to be retrieved without specifying

exactly how to get it is

(A) Procedural DML. (B) Non-Procedural DML.

(C) Procedural DDL. (D) Non-Procedural DDL.

Ans: (B)

Q.7 Precedence graphs help to find a

(A) Serializable schedule. (B) Recoverable schedule.

(C) Deadlock free schedule. (D) Cascadeless schedule.

Ans: (A)

Q.8 The rule that a value of a foreign key must appear as a value of some specific table is

called a

(A) Referential constraint. (B) Index.

(C) Integrity constraint. (D) Functional dependency.

Ans: (A) The rule that a value of a foreign key must appear as a value of some specific

table is called a referential constraint. (Referential integrity constraint is concerned with

foreign key)

Q.9 The clause in SQL that specifies that the query result should be sorted in ascending or

descending order based on the values of one or more columns is

(A) View (B) Order by

(C) Group by (D) Having

Ans: (B) The clause in SQL that specifies that the query result should be sorted in

ascending or descending order based on the values of one or more columns is ORDER

BY. (ORDER BY clause is used to arrange the result of the SELECT statement)

Q.10 What is a disjoint less constraint?

(A) It requires that an entity belongs to no more than one level entity set.

(B) The same entity may belong to more than one level.

(C) The database must contain an unmatched foreign key value.

(D) An entity can be joined with another entity in the same level entity set.

Ans: (A) Disjoint less constraint requires that an entity belongs to no more than one level

entity set. (Disjoint less constraint means that an entity can be a member of at most one of

the subclasses of the specialization.)

Q.11 According to the levels of abstraction, the schema at the intermediate level is called

(A) Logical schema. (B) Physical schema.

(C) Subschema. (D) Super schema.

Ans: According to the levels of abstraction, the schema at the intermediate level is called

conceptual schema.

(Note: All the options given in the question are wrong.)

Q.12 It is an abstraction through which relationships are treated as higher level entities

(A) Generalization. (B) Specialization.

(C) Aggregation. (D) Inheritance.

Ans: (C ) It is an abstraction through which relationships are treated as higher level

entities Aggregation. (In ER diagram, aggregation is used to represent a relationship as an

entity set.)

Q.13 A relation is in ____________ if an attribute of a composite key is dependent on an

attribute of other composite key.

(A) 2NF (B) 3NF

(C) BCNF (D) 1NF

Ans: (B) A relation is in 3 NF if an attribute of a composite key is dependent on an

attribute of other composite key. (If an attribute of a composite key is dependent on an

attribute of other composite key then the relation is not in BCNF, hence it has to be

decomposed.)

Q.14 What is data integrity?

(A) It is the data contained in database that is non redundant.

(B) It is the data contained in database that is accurate and consistent.

(C) It is the data contained in database that is secured.

(D) It is the data contained in database that is shared.

Ans: (B) (Data integrity means that the data must be valid according to the given

constraints. Therefore, the data is accurate and consistent.)

Q.15 What are the desirable properties of a decomposition

(A) Partition constraint. (B) Dependency preservation.

(C) Redundancy. (D) Security.

Ans: (B) What are the desirable properties of a decomposition – dependency preserving.

(Lossless join and dependency preserving are the two goals of the decomposition.)

Q.16 In an E-R diagram double lines indicate

(A) Total participation. (B) Multiple participation.

(C) Cardinality N. (D) None of the above.

Ans: (A)

Q.17 The operation which is not considered a basic operation of relational algebra is

(A) Join. (B) Selection.

(C) Union. (D) Cross product.

Ans: (A)

Q.18 Fifth Normal form is concerned with

(A) Functional dependency. (B) Multivalued dependency.

(C) Join dependency. (D) Domain-key.

Ans: (C)

Q.19 Block-interleaved distributed parity is RAID level

(A) 2. (B) 3

(C) 4. (D) 5.

Ans: (D)

Q.20 Immediate database modification technique uses

(A) Both undo and redo. (B) Undo but no redo.

(C) Redo but no undo. (D) Neither undo nor redo.

Ans: (A)

Q.21 In SQL the statement select * from R, S is equivalent to

(A) Select * from R natural join S. (B) Select * from R cross join S.

(C) Select * from R union join S. (D) Select * from R inner join S.

Ans: (B)

Q.22 Which of the following is not a consequence of concurrent operations?

(A) Lost update problem. (B) Update anomaly.

(C) Unrepeatable read. (D) Dirty read.

Ans: (B)

Q.23 As per equivalence rules for query transformation, selection operation distributes over

(A) Union. (B) Intersection.

(C) Set difference. (D) All of the above.

Ans: (D)

Q.24 The metadata is created by the

(A) DML compiler (B) DML pre-processor

(C) DDL interpreter (D) Query interpreter

Ans: (C)

Q.25 When an E-R diagram is mapped to tables, the representation is redundant for

(A) weak entity sets (B) weak relationship sets

(C) strong entity sets (D) strong relationship sets

Ans: (B)

Microprocessor Based System Design

Microprocessor Sure Questions

Q.1 If the crystal oscillator is operating at 15 MHz, the PCLK output of 8284 is

(A) 2.5 MHz. (B) 5 MHz.

(C) 7.5 MHz. (D) 10 MHz.

view answer

Ans: (A)

Q.2 In which T-state does the CPU sends the address to memory or I/O and the ALE signal

for demultiplexing

(A) T1. (B) T2.

(C) T3. (D) T4.

view answer

Ans, During the first clocking period in a bus cycle, which is called T1, the address of the memory or I/O location is sent out and the control signals ALE, DT/R’ and IO/M’ are also output. Hence answer is (A).

Q.3 If a 1M×1 DRAM requires 4 ms for a refresh and has 256 rows to be refreshed, no

more than __________ of time must pass before another row is refreshed.

(A) 64 ms. (B) 4 ns.

(C) 0.5 ns. (D) 15.625 μs .

view answer

Ans Answer is (B)

Q.4 In a DMA write operation the data is transferred

(A) from I/O to memory. (B) from memory to I/O.

(C) from memory to memory. (D) from I/O to I/O.

view answer

Ans A DMA writes operation transfers data from an I/O device to memory. Hence answer is (A).

Q.5 Which type of JMP instruction assembles if the distance is 0020 h bytes

(A) near. (B) far.

(C) short. (D) none of the above.

view answer

Ans The three byte near jump allows a branch or jump within ± 32K bytes. Hence answer is (A).

Q.6 A certain SRAM has CS = 0 , WE = 0 and OE = 1. In which of the following modes this SRAM is operating

(A) Read (B) Write

(C) Stand by (D) None of the above

view answer

Ans For CS’=WE’=0, write operation. Hence answer is (B).

Q.7 Which of the following is true with respect to EEPROM?

(A) contents can be erased byte wise only.

(B) contents of full memory can be erased together.

(C) contents can be erased using ultra violet rays

(D) contents can not be erased

view answer

Ans Answer is (C).

Q.8 Pseudo instructions are basically

(A) false instructions.

(B) instructions that are ignored by the microprocessor.

(C) assembler directives.

(D) instructions that are treated like comments.

view answer

Ans Pseudo-instructions are commands to the assembler. All pseudo-operations start with a period. Pseudo-instructions are composed of a pseudo-operation which may be followed by one or more expressions. Hence answer is (C).

Q.9 Number of the times the instruction sequence below will loop before coming out of

loop is

MOV AL, 00h

A1: INC AL

JNZ A1

(A) 00 (B) 01

(C) 255 (D) 256

Ans Answer is (D)

Q.10 What will be the contents of register AL after the following has been executed

MOV BL, 8C

MOV AL, 7E

ADD AL, BL

(A) 0A and carry flag is set (B) 0A and carry flag is reset

(C) 6A and carry flag is set (D) 6A and carry flag is reset

view answer

Ans, Result is 1,0A. Hence answer is (A).

Q.11 Direction flag is used with

(A) String instructions. (B) Stack instructions.

(C) Arithmetic instructions. (D) Branch instructions.

view answer

Ans The direction flag is used only with the string instructions.Hence answer is (A).

Q.12 Ready pin of a microprocessor is used

(A) to indicate that the microprocessor is ready to receive inputs.

(B) to indicate that the microprocessor is ready to receive outputs.

(C) to introduce wait states.

(D) to provide direct memory access.

view answer

Ans This input is controlled to insert wait states into the timing of the microprocessor.

Hence answer is (C).

Q.13 These are two ways in which a microprocessor can come out of Halt state.

(A) When hold line is a logical 1.

(B) When interrupt occurs and the interrupt system has been enabled.

(C) When both (A) and (B) are true.

(D) When either (A) or (B) are true.

view answer

Ans Answer is (A)

Q.14 In the instruction FADD, F stands for

(A) Far. (B) Floppy.

(C) Floating. (D) File.

view answer

Ans Adds two floating point numbers. Hence answer is (C).

Q.15 SD RAM refers to

(A) Synchronous DRAM (B) Static DRAM

(C) Semi DRAM (D) Second DRAM

view answer

Ans, Answer is (A)

Q.16 In case of DVD, the speed is referred in terms of n X (for example 32 X). Here, X

refers to

(A) 150 KB/s (B) 300 KB/s

(C) 1.38 MB/s (D) 2.4 MB/s

view answer

Ans Answer is (C).

Q.17 Itanium processor of Intel is a

(A) 32 bit microprocessor. (B) 64 bit microprocessor.

(C) 128 bit microprocessor. (D) 256 bit microprocessor.

view answer

Ans The Itanium is a 64-bit architecture microprocessor. Hence answer is (B).

Q.18 LOCK prefix is used most often

(A) during normal execution. (B) during DMA accesses

(C) during interrupt servicing. (D) during memory accesses.

view answer

Ans LOCK is a prefix which is used to make an instruction of 8086 non-interruptable.Hence answer is (C).

Q.19 The Pentium microprocessor has______execution units.

(A) 1 (B) 2

(C) 3 (D) 4

view answer

Ans The Pentium microprocessor is organized with three execution units. One executes floating-point instructions, and the other two (U-pipe and V-pipe) execute integer instructions. Hence answer is (C).

Q.20 EPROM is generally erased by using

(A) Ultraviolet rays (B) infrared rays

(C) 12 V electrical pulse (D) 24 V electrical pulse

view answer

Ans The EPROM is erasable if exposed to high-intensity ultraviolet light for about 20 minutes or less. Hence answer is (A)

Q.21 Signal voltage ranges for a logic high and for a logic low in RS-232C standard are

(A) Low = 0 volt to 1.8 volt, high = 2.0 volt to 5 volt

(B) Low =-15 volt to –3 vol, high = +3 volt to +15 volt

(D) Low = +3 volt to +15 volt, high = -3 volt to -15 volt

(E) Low = 2 volt to 5.0 volt, high = 0 volt to 1.8 volt

view answer

Ans Answer is (B)

Q.22 The PCI bus is the important bus found in all the new Pentium systems because

(A) It has plug and play characteristics

(B) It has ability to function with a 64 bit data bus

(C) Any Microprocessor can be interfaced to it with PCI controller or bridge

(D) All of the above

view answer

Ans, Answer is (D).

Q.23 Which of the following statement is true?

(A) The group of machine cycle is called a state.

(B) A machine cycle consists of one or more instruction cycle.

(C) An instruction cycle is made up of machine cycles and a machine cycle is

made up of number of states.

(D) None of the above

view answer

Ans An instruction cycle consists of several machine cycles. Hence Answer is (B).

Q.24 8251 is a

(A) UART

(B) USART

(C) Programmable Interrupt controller

(D) Programmable interval timer/counter

view answer

Ans The Intel 8251 is a programmable communication interface. It is USART.

Q.25 8088 microprocessor has

(A) 16 bit data bus (B) 4 byte pre-fetch queue

(C) 6 byte pre-fetch queue (D) 16 bit address bus

view answer

Ans The 8088 is a 16-bit microprocessor with an 8-bit data bus. The 16-bit address bus. Hence answer is (D).

SYLLABUS OF PROGRAMMER KERALA PSC

PROGRAMMER

KERALA PUBLIC SERVICE COMMISSION

(CATEGORY NO. 264/2014)

PART I

Module 1

Discrete Mathematics, Probability and Statistics

Compound Statements, Truth Tables, The Algebra of Propositions, Logical Arguments, Sets, Operations on Sets, Binary Relations, Partial Orders, Mathematical Induction, The Principle of Inclusion-Exclusion, Probability theory: Sample spaces,Events and probability, Discrete probability: Union, Intersection and Compliment of events, Conditional probability, Baye’s theorem. Linear correlation coefficient, Linear

regression, Non Linear regression, Multiple correlation and Multiple regression, Theory of sampling and population

Module 2

Digital Electronics, Computer Organization and Operating System Digital Logic Systems and Microprocessors: Boolean expressions, K-maps, TTL and CMOS logic families, combinational logic design, synchronous sequential system design. Microprocessors: 8086 architecture, data transfer scheme and interfaces,Addressing modes.

Computer Organization and Architecture: Von-Neumann architecture of computers.Registers and micro operations, control logic, processor addressing and bus organization. Processor input/output and DMA. Memory organization and cache coherence.

Operating Systems: CPU scheduling, Deadlocks, Memory management, file systems, disk scheduling. Process, threads and their synchronization. Real Time OS: clock synchronization and task scheduling. System initialization, booting and handling user accounts. Backup and restore, Bourne shell programming for Linux.

Module 3

Data Structures and Programming in C

Data Structures: Linked List, Stack, Queue, Priority Queues, Hashing, Binary trees, Tree traversal, AVL trees, Graphs- shortest paths, minimum spanning trees; Sorting algorithms.

Programming in C: Operators and expressions, Control statements, Storage types, Functions, Arrays, Strings, Structures, Pointers and dynamic memory management, File Handling.

Module 4

Object Oriented Programming through C++/Java

Data Abstraction, Encapsulation, classes, constructors and destructors, Classes, and dynamic memory allocation, Inheritance, Polymorphism, generic classes, exception handling and File processing. Java applets, Java features, Byte codes, Internet classes, wrapper classes, multithreading support classes, vector, stack, interface observer, stream tokenizer, GUI classes, Java I/O, classes, The Applet class, applet architecture, applet display methods and repainting

Module 5

Database Management System

Keys, E-R Model, Normalization – 1NF to 5NF; Aggregate functions, Nested Sub queries, Views, Joined Relations, Transaction- ACID properties; Concurrency Control, triggers, stored procedures

Module 6

Client Server Architectures and Web Programming

Two and three-tier client server architectures, web servers, HTML & XML, Style Sheets, client side scripting-java script and VB script; Server Side Scripting-php, JSP and ASP.NET programming for creating dynamic web pages using database, forms and session; AJAX and SignalR

Module 7

Computer networks and Programming

Computer networks and security: TCP/IP & OSI/ISO reference models, functions and protocols of different layers, characteristics of physical media, multiplexing, medium access protocols, introduction to 802.3, 802.4, 802.5, 802.11 LAN technology, IP protocol including routing and congestion control, TCP and UDP, DNS. Email protocols. Symmetric and asymmetric encryption including DES, AES, IDEA, RSA

algorithms, key management in symmetric and asymmetric encryption, viruses and trusted systems, Kerberos. Network Programming: Sockets Programming: TCP Programming (TELNET, HTTP). UDP Sockets: TFTP, DNS. Secure Sockets (SSL), TLS, SSH, HTTPS, Remote Method Invocation (RMI). Simple Object Access Protocol (SOAP), UDDI, and Web Services.

Module 8

Software Engineering

System modeling, system engineering process, life cycle models, design and implementation, validation, evolution, automated, process support - software requirements, SRS, feasibility studies - elicitation and analysis - validation - management - system models, context models, behavior models, data models, object

models, object-oriented design, design evolution, real-time software design, critical systems specifications - critical system development, software testing.

PART II

Salient Features of Indian Constitution

Salient features of the Constitution - Preamble- Its significance and its place in the interpretation of the Constitution. Fundamental Rights - Directive Principles of State Policy - Relation between Fundamental Rights and Directive Principles - Fundamental Duties. Executive - Legislature - Judiciary - Both at Union and State Level. - Other Constitutional Authorities. Centre-State Relations - Legislative - Administrative and Financial. Services under the Union and the States. Emergency Provisions. Amendment Provisions of the Constitution.

Social Welfare Legislations and Programmes

Social Service Legislations like Right to Information Act, Prevention of atrocities against Women & Children, Food Security Act, Environmental Acts etc. and Social Welfare Programmes like Employment Guarantee Programme, Organ and Blood Donation etc.

RENAISSANCE IN KERALA

Towards A New Society Introduction to English education - various missionary organisations and their functioningfounding of educational institutions, factories.printing press etc. Efforts To Reform The Society

(A) Socio-Religious reform Movements

SNDP Yogam, Nair Service Society, Yogakshema Sabha, Sadhu Jana Paripalana Sangham, Vaala Samudaya Parishkarani Sabha, Samathwa Samajam, Islam Dharma Paripalana Sangham, Prathyaksha Raksha Daiva Sabha, Sahodara Prasthanam etc.

(B) Struggles and Social Revolts

Upper cloth revolts.Channar agitation, Vaikom Sathyagraha, Guruvayoor Sathyagraha, Paliyam Sathyagraha. Kuttamkulam Sathyagraha, Temple Entry Proclamation, Temple Entry Act .Malyalee Memorial, Ezhava Memorial etc. Malabar riots, Civil Disobedience Movement, Abstention movement etc.

Role Of Press In Renaissance Malayalee, Swadeshabhimani, Vivekodayam, Mithavadi, Swaraj, Malayala Manorama, Bhashaposhini, Mathnubhoomi, Kerala Kaumudi, Samadarsi, Kesari, AI-Ameen,

Prabhatham, Yukthivadi, etc

Awakening Through Literature Novel, Drama, Poetry, Purogamana Sahithya Prasthanam, Nataka Prashtanam, Library movement etc Women And Social Change Parvathi Nenmenimangalam, Arya Pallam, A V Kuttimalu Amma, Lalitha Prabhu.Akkamma Cheriyan, Anna Chandi, Lalithambika Antharjanam and others

Leaders Of Renaissance

Thycaud Ayya Vaikundar, Sree Narayana Guru, Ayyan Kali.Chattampi Swamikal, Brahmananda Sivayogi, Vagbhadananda, Poikayil Yohannan(Kumara Guru) Dr Palpu, Palakkunnath Abraham Malpan, Mampuram Thangal, Sahodaran Ayyappan, Pandit K P Karuppan, Pampadi John Joseph, Mannathu Padmanabhan, V T Bhattathirippad, Vakkom Abdul Khadar Maulavi, Makthi Thangal, Blessed Elias Kuriakose Chaavra, Barrister G P Pillai, TK Madhavan, Moorkoth Kumaran, C. Krishnan, K P Kesava Menon, Dr.Ayyathan Gopalan, C V Kunjuraman, Kuroor Neelakantan Namboothiripad, Velukkutty Arayan, K P Vellon, P K Chathan Master, K Kelappan, P. Krishna Pillai, A K Gopalan, T R Krishnaswami Iyer, C Kesavan. Swami Ananda Theerthan , M C Joseph, Kuttippuzha Krishnapillai and others Literary Figures Kodungallur Kunhikkuttan Thampuran, KeralaVarma Valiyakoyi Thampuran, Kandathil Varghese Mappila. Kumaran Asan, Vallathol Narayana Menon, Ulloor S Parameswara Iyer, G Sankara Kurup, Changampuzha Krishna Pillai, Chandu Menon, Vaikom Muhammad Basheer. Kesav Dev, Thakazhi Sivasankara Pillai, Ponkunnam Varky, S K Pottakkad and others

GENERAL KNOWLEDGE AND CURRENT AFFAIRS

General Knowledge and Current Affairs

NOTE: - It may be noted that apart from the topics detailed above, questions from other topics prescribed for the educational qualification of the post may also appear in the question paper. There is no undertaking that all the topics above may be covered in the question paper.

KERALAPSC PROGRAMER SURE QUESTIONS

OBJECT ORIENTED PROGRAMMING

Q.1 The address of a variable temp of type float is
(A) *temp (B) &temp
(C) float& temp (D) float temp&
Ans: B

Q.2 What is the output of the following code
char symbol[3]={‘a’,‘b’,‘c’};
for (int index=0; index<3; index++)
cout << symbol [index];
(A) a b c (B) “abc”
(C) abc (D) ‘abc’
Ans: C
Q.3 The process of building new classes from existing one is called ______.
(A) Polymorphism (B) Structure
(C) Inheritance (D) Cascading
Ans: C
Q.4 If a class C is derived from class B, which is derived from class A, all through public
inheritance, then a class C member function can access
(A) protected and public data only in C and B.
(B) protected and public data only in C.
(C) private data in A and B.
(D) protected data in A and B.
Ans: D
Q.5 If the variable count exceeds 100, a single statement that prints “Too many” is
(A) if (count<100) cout << “Too many”;
(B) if (count>100) cout >> “Too many”;
(C) if (count>100) cout << “Too many”;
(D) None of these.
Ans: C
Q.6 Usually a pure virtual function
(A) has complete function body.
(B) will never be called.
(C) will be called only to delete an object.
(D) is defined only in derived class.
Ans: D
Q.7 To perform stream I/O with disk files in C++, you should
(A) open and close files as in procedural languages.
(B) use classes derived from ios.
(C) use C language library functions to read and write data.
(D) include the IOSTREAM.H header file.
Ans: B
Q.8 Overloading the function operator
(A) requires a class with an overloaded operator.
(B) requires a class with an overloaded [ ] operator.
(C) allows you to create objects that act syntactically like functions.
(D) usually make use of a constructor that takes arguments.
Ans: A
Q.9 In C++, the range of signed integer type variable is ________
(A) 0 to 216 (B) 2 to 2 1 15 15 − −
(C) 2 to 2 1 7 7 − − (D) 8 0 to 2
Ans: B
Q.10 If x = 5, y = 2 then x Ù y equals________.
(where Ù is a bitwise XOR operator)
(A) 00000111 (B) 10000010
(C) 10100000 (D) 11001000
Ans: A
Q.11 If an array is declared as
int a[4] = {3, 0, 1, 2}, then values assigned to a[0] & a[4] will be ________
(A) 3, 2 (B) 0, 2
(C) 3, 0 (D) 0, 4

Ans: C
Q.12 Mechanism of deriving a class from another derived class is known as____
(A) Polymorphism (B) Single Inheritance
(C) Multilevel Inheritance (D) Message Passing
Ans: C
Q.13 RunTime Polymorphism is achieved by ______
(A) friend function (B) virtual function
(C) operator overloading (D) function overloading
Ans: B
Q.14 A function call mechanism that passes arguments to a function by passing a copy of the values
of the arguments is __________
(A) call by name (B) call by value
(C) call by reference (D) call by value result
Ans: B
Q.15 In C++, dynamic memory allocation is accomplished with the operator ____
(A) new (B) this
(C) malloc( ) (D) delete
Ans: A
Q.16 If we create a file by ‘ifstream’, then the default mode of the file is _________
(A) ios :: out (B) ios :: in
(C) ios :: app (D) ios :: binary
Ans: B
Q.17 A variable defined within a block is visible
(A) from the point of definition onward in the program.
(B) from the point of definition onward in the function.
(C) from the point of definition onward in the block.
(D) throughout the function.
Ans: C
Q.18 The break statement causes an exit
(A) from the innermost loop only. (B) only from the innermost switch.
(C) from all loops & switches. (D) from the innermost loop or switch.
Ans: D

Q.19 Which of the following cannot be legitimately passed to a function
(A) A constant. (B) A variable.
(C) A structure. (D) A header file.
Ans: D
Q.20 A property which is not true for classes is that they
(A) are removed from memory when not in use.
(B) permit data to be hidden from other classes.
(C) bring together all aspects of an entity in one place.
(D) Can closely model objects in the real world.
Ans: C
Q.21 You can read input that consists of multiple lines of text using
(A) the normal cout << combination.
(B) the cin.get( ) function with one argument.
(C) the cin.get( ) function with two arguments.
(D) the cin.get( ) function with three arguments.
Ans: C
Q.22 The keyword friend does not appear in
(A) the class allowing access to another class.
(B) the class desiring access to another class.
(C) the private section of a class.
(D) the public section of a class.
Ans: C
Q.23 The process of building new classes from existing one is called
(A) Structure. (B) Inheritance.
(C) Polymorphism. (D) Template.
Ans: B
Q.24 If you wanted to sort many large objects or structures, it would be most efficient to
(A) place them in an array & sort the array.
(B) place pointers to them in an array & sort the array.
(C) place them in a linked list and sort the linked list.
(D) place references to them in an array and sort the array.
Ans: C
Q.25 Which statement gets affected when i++ is changed to ++i?
(A) i = 20; i++;

(B) for (i = 0; i<20; i++) { }
(C) a = i++;
(D) while (i++ = 20) cout <<i;

Ans: A